Clarifying Questions for Biblical Application

Does the text present a broad theological or moral principle or does it give a specific manifestation of such a principle, which another book of Scripture elsewhere embodies in one or more different forms?

Does the larger context of the same book of Scripture in which the passage appears limit the application in any way or does it promote a more universal application?

Does subsequent revelation limit the application of a particular passage even if the book in which it appears does not?

Is the specific teaching "contradicted" elsewhere in ways that show it was limited to exceptional situations?

Are cultural conditions identified in Scripture or assumed by its authors that make it inappropriate always to apply a given text in the same way?

Is the particular cultural form expressed in the biblical text present today, and if so does it have the same significance as it did then?

Is the rationale for the application rooted in the creation ordinance, in the character of God, or in part of his redemptive plan for humanity?

Is the command or application at variance with standard cultural norms of the day?

Does the passage contain explicit or implicit condition that limits its application?

Should we adopt a "redemptive movement" hermeneutic?